Osama Abdallah's theory of Bible corruption based on this verse is nothing more than wishful thinking. Lets show you how he misintepretes the english mistranslatation of this verse.
In either translation, we clearly see that the Jews had so much corrupted the Bible with their man-made cultural laws, that they had turned the Bible into a lie!
Lets read the content around this verse:
|Even the stork in the sky knows her appointed seasons, and the dove, the swift and the thrush observe the time of their migration. But my people do not know the requirements of the LORD. "`How can you say, "We are wise, for we have the law of the LORD," when actually the lying pen of the scribes has handled it falsely? The wise will be put to shame; they will be dismayed and trapped. SINCE THEY HAVE REJECTED THE WORD OF THE LORD, WHAT KIND OF WISDOM DO THEY HAVE? Jeremiah 8:8-9||Even the stork in the heavens knows her times; and the turtledove, swallow, and crane keep the time of their coming; but my people know not the ordinance of the LORD."How can you say, 'We are wise, and the law of the LORD is with us'? But, behold, the false pen of the scribes has made it into a lie. The wise men shall be put to shame, they shall be dismayed and taken; lo, THEY HAVE REJECTED THE WORD OF THE LORD, and what wisdom is in them? Jeremiah 8:8-9 RSV|
One who looks at the immediate content of these verses see that God poses a question about why the false scribes claim to be wise. Then in verse 9 it answers that question by saying BECAUSE THEY REJECTED THE WORD OF THE LORD (HIS LAW) WHAT TYPE OF WISDOM DO THEY HAVE. We see that there is no mention that these scribes corrupted the Bible. If the Bible was corrupted in verse 8, why is God calling it his word in verse 9? This is something Osama has failed to address.
The accusation that the scribes have falsified the Torah by their lying pens which would indicate that the Law was falsified by corrupting the text. Osama assumes that this is the only possible meaning since he is boguslly believes that the Bible has been corrupted.
But is this what Jeremiah meant? Did his hearers understand him to mean that the text of the Torah had been corrupted? Did the prophets after him agree that the Torah had been corrupted? In order to answer these questions we must look to Jeremiah and to the Holy Bible as a whole to see what indeed did Jeremiah mean.
How could Israel follow the Law, i.e. the Torah, if it had been corrupted? This presupposes that the Torah was uncorrupt and available during the time of Jeremiah. Furthermore, since Jeremiah wrote Jeremiah 8:8 he would know best the meaning of the passage in question. Clearly, we see Jeremiah appealing to the availability of the Law in Jeremiah 26:4-6 implying that he did not believe that the scribes had corrupted the text.
The prophet Daniel writes:
Daniel is reading Jeremiah 25:11, 12 and 29:10 where God predicts that Israel would be taken into captivity to Babylon for 70 years. After reading this, Daniel continues to pray and says:
In order for Daniel to appeal to what was written in the Law of Moses presupposes that an uncorrupt Torah was available during the time of Daniel. Furthermore, after having read Jeremiah Daniel never concludes that the Torah had been corrupted, put appeals to it as the inspired word of God. This would be a strange conclusion for Daniel to come to if Jeremiah 8:8 indeed meant that the text of the Torah had been corrupted during Jeremiah's time.
This occurred approximately 430 B.C. nearly 180 years after Jeremiah's temple address which took place in 609 or 608 B.C. (see Jeremiah 26:1). Again, in order for Ezra the scribe to be able to both read from the Law of Moses and expound it presupposes that a true, uncorrupt copy of the Torah was available at that time.
Finally, the Lord Jesus and his followers quoted from the Torah as we know it today and never assumed that it was corrupt. (cf. Matthew 4:4,7,10; 22:31-32; 1 Timothy 5:18) In fact, Jesus claimed that the Torah as it exists would not pass away until all was fulfilled:
If Jeremiah 8:8 does not mean that the text of the Torah had been corrupted what did Jeremiah mean by the statement that the lying pens of the scribes have falsified it? Jeremiah was referring to the written commentary of the scribes whereby they falsely interpreted the Law of God, leading people astray by their traditions. A similar situation arose between Jesus and the scribes and Pharisees:
Jeremiah was rebuking the scribes for traditions that was leading the people astray and to rejecting the word of God. This can be seen from the passage that immediately follows:
We see no evidence whatsoever about Jeremiah showing proof of the corruption of the Law. In fact the Bible expounds on this matter in showing that the Law is unchangable but that people and hypocrites add to it their own vain desires:
Moses summoned all Israel and said: Hear, O Israel, the decrees and laws I declare in your hearing today. Learn them and be sure to follow them. Deut 5:1
The Jews were commanded to follow the Law, and they even wrote them down to guard them from corruption:
The law was so sacred until YHWH almighty would send plagues on people who'd disobeyed it:
Then the LORD your God will make you most prosperous in all the work of your hands and in the fruit of your womb, the young of your livestock and the crops of your land. The LORD will again delight in you and make you prosperous, just as he delighted in your fathers, if you obey the LORD your God and keep his commands and decrees THAT ARE WRITTEN IN THIS BOOK OF THE LAW and turn to the LORD your God with all your heart and with all your soul. Deut. 30:9-10
Notice that the Bible clearly says that the laws were written down. Therefore if they were corrupted as Osama claimed then every correct copy of the Law would have to be collected, burned and replaced with a new one without the people knowing!! So we ask Muslims such as Osama, when did this happen before Jeremiah? Show us some proof, however he can't since he can only quote verses out of context. Even in other places in the Bible after the supposed corruption of the law we see clearly that God's prophet's that are even mentioned in the Quran, attest to the law being with them:
I will not again make the feet of the Israelites wander from the land I gave their forefathers, if only they will be careful to do everything I commanded them and will keep the WHOLE LAW that my servant Moses gave them." 2 Kings 21:8
Hilkiah the high priest said to Shaphan the secretary, "I have found the Book of the Law in the temple of the LORD." He gave it to Shaphan, who read it. 2 Kings 22:8
Even before Jeremiah the law was well established and was never mentioned after being corrupted. So if Jeremiah claimed that the Bible was corrupted why is people after him being instructed by YHWH to still use it? Its because it never was corrupted. Read:
Artaxerxes, king of kings, To Ezra the priest, a teacher of the Law of the God of heaven: Greetings. Ezra 7:12
Not only do we see that after Jeremiah God was still using the law but we will let David, under the inspiration of YHWH (a great man in the Quran), finish with this about the law:
Osama's lie about Jeremiah 8:8 is nothing more than a mere hoax.
The Book of Moses predicted that the Law (Bible) will get corrupted. The Book of Jeremiah which came approximately 826 years after did indeed confirm this corruption.
When we look at the content around this verse we will see just how desperate Osama is. He lies by trying to make the people the Bible!! Read:
Moses had already wrotten the Law down and he was to use it as a witness against the elders who were evil!!! Notice in this passage that after Moses death, it is the elders, not the law who will become corrupt. This is verified more when we see that "disaster will befall them since they did evil in the sight of the LORD". How can a book perform actions as a human being? This is something that Osama also has yet to address. He has intentially lied to make the elders the law, when the passage says that the law would be a witness and was already in the safety of the ark! Osama intentionally lied!! What ashame, can't prove bible corruption so you resort to bible misintepretation. Notice that this slander is found on most of his web pages!!!
Hence, If Dueteronomy 31:25-29 proves bible corruption as Osama claims how come verses after this one in books later following show the legitamcy of the law? Read:
Notice that in the next chapter after Osama's claimed Bible corruption we see God talking about teaching the law to Israel!!
If the law was already corrupted in Deuteronomy how come Joshua, which came later is explictedly told by Yahweh almighty that he must obey all the law that was written down with him? Simple, because the bible never was corrupted or would it ever be corrupted.
But be very careful to keep the commandment and the law that Moses the servant of the LORD gave you: to love the LORD your God, to walk in all his ways, to obey his commands, to hold fast to him and to serve him with all your heart and all your soul." (Joshua 22:5)
God almighty is continuously telling his people to obey his command in his law after Dueteronomy 31:25-29. We see that Osama's theory is again a bogus lie propogated by his lackluster reading skills.
And Joshua recorded these things in the Book of the Law of God. Then he took a large stone and set it up there under the oak near the holy place of the LORD. "See!" he said to all the people. "This stone will be a witness against us. It has heard all the words the LORD has said to us. It will be a witness against you if you are untrue to your God." (Joshua 24:26-27)
The law was still uncorrupt long after the passage that Osama claimed and we see that it was taught over 1000 years later in Judah:
With this ample evidence being shown lets expose Osama's misunderstading clearer about his claim of Deut 31:25-29 showing corruption:
This verse particular is verse 29 which says:
However Osama violates his own word on his other web pages when he claims this about incomplete quoting:
We wonder why he doesn't follow his own bogus word? However read verse 28 before verse 29:
NOW READ VERSE 29 For I know that after my death YOU ARE SURE TO BECOME UTTERLY CORRUPT and to turn from the way I have commanded you. In days to come, disaster will fall upon you because you will do evil in the sight of the LORD and provoke him to anger by what your hands have made."
Verse 28 says Moses is testifying against the elders and then verse 29 says that they will become corrupt using the LAW as a witness against their corruption from the previous verses!!! Lets look at these verses compared with Joshua 24:26-28, to bring this point home:
|AFTER MOSES FINISHED WRITING IN A BOOK THE WORDS OF THIS LAW FROM BEGINNING TO END, he gave this command to the Levites who carried the ark of the covenant of the LORD: "Take this Book of the Law and place it beside the ark of the covenant of the LORD your God. THERE IT WILL REMAIN AS A WITNESS AGAINST YOU...ASSEMBLE BEFORE ME ALL THE ELDERS of your tribes and all your officials, so that I can speak these words IN THEIR HEARING and call heaven and earth to TESTIFY AGAINST THEM. For I know that after my death YOU ARE SURE TO BECOME UTTERLY CORRUPT and to turn from the way I have commanded you. (Deut. 31:24-26,28-29)||And Joshua recorded these things in the Book of the Law of God. Then he took a LARGE STONE and set it up there under the oak near the holy place of the LORD. "See!" he said to all the people. "THIS STONE WILL BE A WITNESS AGAINST US. It has heard all the words the LORD has said to us. IT WILL BE A WITNESS AGAINST YOU if you are untrue to your God." (Joshua 24:26-27)|
Both Joshua and Moses performed the same functions and used the law as a witness against unbelievers. The Law isn't corrupted nor did the Bible ever say that it will be corrupted. By not having hooked on phonics, Osama has presented nothing but a phony argument in his desperate attempts to prove Bible corrution.
Quennel Gale at firstname.lastname@example.org